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LinkedIn Spring Framework Assessment Answers

LinkedIn Spring Framework Assessment Answers

In this post, you will get Linkedin Spring Framework Assessment Answers 2021. This test is passed recently by professionals and all the answers are 100% correct and accurate. Please bookmark this blog for your future reference.

The LinkedIn Skill Assessments feature allows you to demonstrate your knowledge of the skills you’ve added to your profile. Job posters on LinkedIn can also add Skill Assessments as part of the job application process. This allows job posters to more efficiently and accurately verify the crucial skills a candidate should have for a role.

The topics in the Spring Framework assessment include:

  • Core
  • Web
  • TOP
  • Data
  • Boot
  • Security
  • REST
  • Testing

Question Format
Multiple Choice

Language
English

LinkedIn Spring Framework Assessment Questions and Answers

Q1. How filters are used in Spring Web?
  •  Filters are called before a request hits the DispatcherServlet.They allow for interception-style, chained processing of web requests for security, timeouts, and other purposes.
  •  Filters are used with a checksum algorithm that will filter invalid bytes out of a byte stream request body and allow for the processing of HTTP requests from the DispatcherRequestServlet.
  •  Filters are used with a checksum algorithm that will filter invalid bytes out of an octet stream a multipart upload and allow for chained processing of WebDispatcherServlet requests.
  •  Filters are used to validate request parameters out of the byte stream request body and allow for the processing of requests from the DispatcherRequestServlet.
Q2. How is a resource defined in the context of a REST service?
  •  A resource is the actual String literal that composes a URI that is accessed on a RESTful web service.
  •  It is an abstract concept that represents a typed object, data, relationships, and a set of methods that operate on it that is accessed via a URI.
  •  A REST service has a pool of resources composed of allocations of memory that allow a request to be processed.
  •  A resource for a REST service is an explicit allocation of a thread or CPU cycle to allow a request to be processed.
Q3. Which of these is a valid Advice annotation?
  •  @AfterError
  •  @AfterReturning
  •  @AfterException
  •  @AfterExecution
Q4. What does a ViewResolver do?
  •  It supports the internationalization of web applications by detecting a user’s locale.
  •  It generates a view by mapping a logical view name returned by a controller method to view technology.
  •  It creates a unique view determined by the user’s browser type, supporting cross-browser compatibility.
  •  It maps custom parameters to SQL views in the database, allowing for dynamic content to be created in the response.
Q5. How are Spring Data repositories implemented by Spring at runtime?
  •  Spring automatically generated code for you based on your YAML config that defined a MethodInterceptor chain that intercepts calls to the instance and computed SQL on the fly.
  •  A JDK proxy instance is created, which backs the repository interface, and a MethodInterceptor intercept calls to the instance and routes as required.
  •  The Spring JDK proxy creates a separate runtime process that acts as an intermediary between the database and the Web server, and intercepts call to the instance, and handles requests.
  •  Spring automatically generated code for you based on your XML config files that define a SpringMethodAutoGeneration factory that intercepts calls to the instance and creates a dynamic method that computer SQL on the fly.
Q6. What is SpEL and how is it used in Spring?
  •  SpEL(Spring Expression Language) runs in the JVM and can act as a drop-in replacement for Groovy or other languages.
  •  SpEL(Spring Expression Language) supports boolean and relational operators and regular expressions and is used for querying a graph of objects at runtime.
  •  SpEL(Spring Expression Language) allows you to build, configure, and execute tasks such as building artifacts and downloading object dependencies.
  •  SpEL(Spring Expression Language) natively transpires one JVM language to another, allowing for greater flexibility.
Q7. The process of linking aspects with other objects to create an advised object is called
  •  dynamic chaining
  •  banding
  •  weaving
  •  interleaving
Q8. How are JDK Dynamic proxies and CGLIB proxies used in Spring?
  •  JDK Dynamic proxy can proxy the only interface, so it is used if the target implements at least one interface. A CGLIB proxy can create a proxy by subclassing and is used if the target does not implement an interface.
  •  Only JDK Dynamic proxies are used in the Spring Bean Lifecycle. CGLIB proxies are used only for integrating with other frameworks.
  •  Only CGLIB proxies are used in the Spring Bean Lifecycle. JDK Dynamic proxies are used only for integrating with other frameworks.
  •  JDK Dynamic proxy can only be using an abstract class extended by a target. A CGLIB proxy can create a proxy through bytecode interweaving and is used if the target does not extend an abstract class.
Q9. Which of these is not a valid method on the JoinPoint interface?
  •  getArgs()
  •  getExceptions()
  •  getSignature()
  •  getTarget()
Q10. In what order do the @PostConstruct annotated method, the init-method parameter method on beans and the afterPropertiesSet() method execute?
  •  1. afterPropertiesSet() 2. init-method 3. @PostConstruct
  •  1. @PostConstruct 2. afterPropertiesSet() 3. init-method
  •  1. init-method 2. afterPropertiesSet() 3. @PostConstruct
  •  You cannot use these methods together-you must choose only one.
Q11. What is the function of the @Transactional annotation at the class level?
  •  It’s a transaction attribute configured by the spring.security.transactions.xml config file that uses Spring’s transaction implementation and validation code.
  •  It’s a transaction that must actively validate by the bytecode of a transaction using Spring’s TransactionBytecodeValidator class. Default Transaction behavior rolls back on validation exception but commits on proper validation
  •  It creates a proxy that implements the same interface(s) as the annotated class, allowing Spring to inject behaviors before, after, or around method calls into the object being proxied.
  •  It’s a transaction that must be actively validated by Spring’s TransactionValidator class using Spring’s transaction validation code. Default Transaction behavior rolls back on validation exception.
Q12. Which is a valid example of the output from this code (ignoring logging statements)?
@SpringBootApplication
public class App {
    public static void main(String args[]) {
        SpringApplication.run(App.class, args);
        System.out.println(“startup”);
    }
}
public class Print implements InitializingBean {
    @Override
    public void afterPropertiesSet() throws Exception {
        System.out.println(“init”);
    }
}
  •  Nothing will print
  •  startup init
  •  init
  •  startup
Q13. Which println statement would you remove to stop this code from throwing a null pointer exception?
@Component
public class Test implements InitializingBean {
    @Autowired
    ApplicationContext context;
    @Autowired
    static SimpleDateFormt formatter;
    @Override
    public void afterPropertiesSet() throws Exception {
        System.out.println(context.containsBean(“formatter”) + ” “);
        System.out.println(context.getBean(“formatter”).getClass());
        System.out.println(formatter.getClass());
        System.out.println(context.getClass());
    }
}
@Configuration
class TestConfig {
    @Bean
    public SimpleDateFormat formatter() {
        return new SimpleDateFormat();
    }
}
  •  formatter.getClass()
  •  context.getClass()
  •  context.getBean(“formatter”).getClass()
  •  context.containsBean(“formatter”)
Q14. What is the root interface for accessing a Spring bean container?
  •  SpringInitContainer
  •  ResourceLoader
  •  ApplicationEventPublisher
  •  BeanFactory
Q15. Which annotation can be used within Spring Security to apply method-level security?
  •  @Secured
  •  @RequiresRole
  •  @RestrictedTo
  •  @SecurePath
  • ==========================
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at July 30, 2021 No comments: 

Labels: LinkedIn Assessment Test

Saturday, July 31, 2021

LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment Quiz Answers

LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment

Why Choose Our LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment Answers?

We have entertained ourselves with the practice where our experts did not just produce the best LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment Answers, however, they do thorough testing. We are enthusiastic about testing our answers through a real environment consistently.

The LinkedIn Skill Assessments feature allows you to demonstrate your knowledge of the skills you’ve added to your profile. Job posters on LinkedIn can also add Skill Assessments as part of the job application process. This allows job posters to more efficiently and accurately verify the crucial skills a candidate should have for a role.

The topics in the Agile Methodologies assessment include:

  • Agile Ceremonies
  • Agile Mindset and Culture
  • Frameworks and Scaling
  • Product Owner
  • Team Facilitator

Question Format
Multiple Choice

Language
English, French

LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment  Questions and Answers

You can just Ctrl+Find and search for the question you are searching for crosscheck the answer and mark it in your question paper. Best of Luck. You will clear the LinkedIn Agile Methodologies Assessment Test 2021.

 

Q1. Teams may encounter the need for “technical” user stories. Who decides the priority of these?
  •  the Product Owner with help from Operations
  •  the Tech Lead with help from the Product Owner
  •  the Product Owner with help from the Tech Lead
  •  the Tech Lead with help from Operations
Q2. What is the Scrum Master’s role during the daily stand-up?
  •  Congratulate the team on their great work.
  •  Stand outside the circle of developers and listen for impediments.
  •  The Scrum Master should not attend—this meeting is for developers only.
  •  Ask each developer what they did since the last daily standup.
Q3. Which factor should not be considered during Sprint Planning?
  •  the team’s velocity
  •  the number of stories in the product backlog
  •  the stories that are ready
  •  the team’s capacity
Q4. A team member has been showing signs of great personal distress: crying at work, snapping at colleagues, having heated phone conversations. As Team Facilitator, what should you do?
  •  Give the team members space and time to deal with their personal issues.
  •  Tell the others on the team that their teammate needs some emotional support.
  •  Notify the team member’s manager of your observations and ask the manager for help.
  •  Ask the team member if they would like to talk about what might be going on with them personally.
Q5. Which statement describes the flow of work in the Scaled Agile Framework?
  •  It is a “push” system.
  •  It is “push” at the top and “pull” at the bottom.
  •  It is a “pull” system.
  •  It is neither “push” nor “pull.”
Q6. What is the Product Owner’s role in deciding the priority of work in the sprint backlog?
  •  None—the Scrum Master should prioritize the work in the sprint backlog.
  •  The PO should prioritize the items in the sprint backlog.
  •  The developers prioritize work unless they cannot complete it, in which case the PO should prioritize the remaining work.
  •  None—the developers should prioritize the work in the sprint backlog.
Q7. The Scaled Agile Framework advocates that, if you measure only one thing, what should you measure?
  •  quality
  •  predictability of delivery
  •  cost of delay
  •  return on investment
Q8. Why should you apply Weighted Shortest Job First?
  •  to maximize the return on investment
  •  to determine the economic sequencing of the backlog
  •  to visualize queue length
  •  to fulfill a commitment to quality
Explanation
Q9. You have classified the features in your backlog according to risk and value. Which features should the development teamwork on first?
  •  low-value and high-risk
  •  high-value and high-risk
  •  high-value and low-risk
  •  low-value and low-risk
Explanation
Q10. In the Scaled Agile Framework, what is the role of Enablers?
  •  They help extend the Architectural Runway.
  •  They connect vision to a mission so the organization can be successful.
  •  They support team building.
  •  They remove the impediments to quality.
Q11. Which outcome is not expected of a Sprint Review?
  •  The team demonstrates its completed work.
  •  The team reflects on how to improve its performance.
  •  Items in the backlog may be reprioritized.
  •  Stakeholders give feedback about the work completed.
Q12. What is not a technique used for splitting user stories?
  •  split by line-of-business
  •  split compound user stories
  •  split by alternative paths
  •  split by interface
Q13. Who decides what the team will work on?
  •  the Scrum Master
  •  a self-organizing team
  •  the Product Owner
  •  the Product Manager
Q14. Which choice is not a Scrum value?
  •  focus
  •  integrity
  •  courage
  •  commitment
Q15. What should happen if the Product Owner does not accept a story by the end of the iteration?
  •  The team does not get credit for the story’s points in its velocity calculation.
  •  The story should be sliced to reflect the work completed.
  •  The acceptance criteria should be adjusted to reflect the work completed.
  •  The story should be shown to stakeholders for their feedback.
Q16. Which statement is not true about the product backlog?
  •  It is a list of work items that are behind schedule.
  •  The items are maintained in priority order.
  •  Anyone on the team can propose an item for it.
  •  It includes all of the work to be done.
Q17. A project has some major risks that the team wants to mitigate. What is the best way to monitor how well this effort is going?
  •  risk-based spike
  •  risk-adjusted backlog
  •  risk velocity chart
  •  risk burndown graph
Q18. The VP of engineering wants to start a Team Member of the Sprint Award to recognize a top performer in each group. What would you advise the VP?
 
  •  This is not a good idea unless there has been recent employee feedback that people feel underappreciated.
  •  It is a good idea as long as a different person is recognized in each sprint.
  •  It is a good idea because awards can motivate people to do their best.
  •  This is not a good idea because it can destroy the team unity that is essential to achieving high performance. <<<—CORRECT
Q19. What is the difference between a team’s task board and a Kanban?
  •  A Kanban has an explicit rule to limit WIP.
  •  A Kanban shows the backlog of work.
  •  A Kanban does not use a Definition of Done.
  •  A Kanban shows the status of the work items.
Q20. The team complains that “things have been falling through the cracks lately.” What should you do?
  •  Ask the team’s manager to make role assignments so the team can catch up.
  •  Conduct a workshop to identify all of the things that need to be done and see who can help with each.
  •  Refer to the team’s RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) assignments.
  •  Meet with the Tech Lead and Product Owner to try to identify what can be done.
Q21. In Large-Scale Scrum, what is the recommended ratio of Scrum Masters to teams?
  •  One Scrum Master can support up to five teams.
  •  Large teams should have two Scrum Masters.
  •  There should be one Scrum Master per team.
  •  One Scrum Master can support one to three teams.
Q22. In the Cynefin framework, where are “best practices” most appropriate?
  •  in the Complex regime
  •  in the Complicated regime
  •  in the Chaotic regime
  •  in the Obvious regime
Q23. A manager informs you that a developer from another team is between assignments, and she wants to place the developer on your team for a few sprints. What should you do?
  •  Explain to the manager that this will be disruptive to the team and ask that another assignment be found.
  •  Explain the situation to the team and ask them to go with the flow.
  •  Explain the situation to your manager and ask them to resolve it.
  •  When the temporary developer shows up, assign them to write documentation.
Q24. The Product Owner complains to you that the team is not working hard enough and they need to increase their velocity by at least 50%. Which action should you not take?
  •  Share the feedback from the PO and challenge the team to increase their velocity.
  •  Ask the PO to explain the business context to the team.
  •  Explain the impact of technical debt on the PO and the benefits of devoting some capacity to reducing it.
  •  Hold a Value Stream Mapping workshop to identify and reduce waste.
Q25. What is the name of the practice in which a cross-functional team collaborates intensively to develop a new product idea?
  •  Hackathon
  •  Scrum at Scale
  •  Innovation and Planning
  •  Magnum Focus
Q26. The team’s manager wants to attend the Sprint Retrospective. What should you do?
  •  Agree to the manager’s request and notify the team.
  •  Propose that the manager attend only every other retrospective.
  •  Propose a different forum for the manager to meet with the team.
  •  Ask the team if it is okay with them that the manager attend.
Q27. Who is responsible for a Scrum team’s performance?
  •  the team
  •  the Scrum Master
  •  the Product Owner
  •  the Engineering Manager
Q28. Which statement concerning small, frequent releases of software is true?
  •  The chance for rollback is high.
  •  It typically requires a high degree of automation.
  •  The administrative costs are high.
  •  Backward compatibility may be jeopardized.
Q29. What is the activity of clarifying and expanding user stories called?
  •  story point estimating
  •  Definition of Done
  •  user story expansion
  •  backlog refinement
Q30. Which strategy is preferred for development teams?
  •  Optimize for most work done.
  •  Maximize output and maximize outcome.
  •  Maximize outcome while minimizing output.
  •  Optimize resource utilization.
Q31. Which statement is true about the actor in a user story?
  •  The actor does not have to be a specified role in the solution.
  •  There must be multiple personas for each actor.
  •  The actor can be the system itself.
  •  The system cannot be the actor.
Q32. Which statement is true about Agile?
  •  Agile requires a high degree of up-front planning.
  •  Once the requirements are agreed to, the team can complete the work.
  •  Agile requires a high degree of discipline.
  •  Agile works best when there is no contract.
Q33. Which statement about burndown and burnup charts is not true?
  •  Burndown charts show the work remaining to be done.
  •  Burnup charts show the work completed.
  •  Burndown charts are more useful than burnup charts.
  •  Agile project management tools can produce these automatically.
Q34. What is the name for the practice of going to see a process in use at the point of value delivery?
  •  Six Sigma
  •  Gemba walk
  •  Total Quality Management
  •  Kaizen
Q35. When the team needs to make a decision, what is the best course of action?
  •  Try to achieve consensus.
  •  Take a vote and the majority rules.
  •  Identify the most knowledgeable person and ask them to decide.
  •  Let the most senior member of the team decide.
Q36. Which action is something the Team Facilitator should NOT do?
  •  Embrace servant leadership.
  •  Estimate story points.
  •  Celebrate successes.
  •  Remove impediments
Q37. A team needs to do research, design, prototyping. What is this type of story called?
  •  Exploratory spike
  •  Backlog refinement
  •  Functional decomposition
  •  R&D
Q38. Which story about technical debt is true?
  •  Technical debt is another name for bugs
  •  It is at the Product Owner’s description to allocate effort to reduce technical debt.
  •  Adding technical debt should be avoided at all costs.
  •  Technical debt is what the Product Owner owes to the developers if they work a lot of overtime to complete the sprint.
Q39. Which statement about estimating is not true?
  •  Absolute estimating is more reliable than relative estimating.
  •  Relative estimating is more reliable than absolute estimating.
  •  In estimating, accuracy is more important than precision.
  •  In estimating, the effort is more important than the time required.
Q40. Which ceremony should the Product Owner not attend?
  •  daily stand-ups
  •  Sprint Retrospectives
  •  story point estimating
  •  code reviews
Q41. Which task is not the Product Owners responsibility?
  •  estimating story points
  •  refining acceptance criteria
  •  giving feedback to developers about the user stories
  •  demonstrating the work to stakeholders
Q42. Which choice is not considered during Sprint Planning?
  •  stories that meet the Definition of Done
  •  team velocity
  •  stories that meet the Definition of Ready
  •  team capacity
Q43. You have noticed a pattern that the most interesting stories on the Sprint Backlog get started right away, and the least interesting stories languish or don’t get done. What should you do?
  •  Use a lottery system to assign each story.
  •  Share your observation with the team and invite them to own and solve the problem.
  •  During story point estimation increase the points assigned to the least interesting stories so the team can boost their velocity.
  •  Ask the Tech Lead to assign every story to a developer so they all get done efficiently and with accountability. //Answer?
Q44. What Agile practice best supports this principle: “At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behavior accordingly”?
  •  Sprint Review
  •  Sprint Retrospective //Answer?
  •  daily stand-up
  •  Sprint Demo
Q45. On what are personas typically based?
  •  sponsors or team members’ personalities and traits what the developers think are user-friendly real people, archetypal users, or composites of multiple users //Answer?
  •  descriptions of the product’s functionality and use
Q46. Which statement describes Shu Ha Ri?
  •  It is a library of coding patterns.
  •  It is a software testing strategy.
  •  It is a standard for interface design.
  •  It is a model for skill development and mastery.
Q47. What does the Agile Manifesto indicate?
  •  Responding to change is more valuable than following a plan.
  •  Documenting requirements upfront is more valuable than at the end.
  •  Following the plan is essential for not going over budget.
  •  Contract negotiation should be used to settle disputes.
Q48. What is the main benefit of a working agreement?
  •  It specifies core working hours.
  •  It clarifies the reporting relationships on the team.
  •  It defines the culture that the team aspires to achieve.
  •  It compiles everyone’s information.
Q49. What is the name of the information radiator that has multiple columns used to visualize the flow of work?
  •  Work Flow Indicator
  •  Value Stream Map
  •  Story Map
  •  Kanban Beard //Answer?
Q50. Which is the best definition of story points?
  •  They are a relative measure of the effort needed to complete a story.
  •  They are a measure of development time only, test time is considered separately.
  •  They are a relative measure of the value of a story.
  •  They are a measure of time to complete a story.
Q51. What is a Scrum of Scrums?
  •  It is a technique for two or more teams to work together to coordinate their efforts.
  •  It is another name for the Scrum Master Community of Practice.
  •  It is an information radiator used to compare the velocity of several teams.
  •  It is the system demo for teams on the same release train.
Q52. What is the Product Owner’s role regarding the product backlog?
  •  The PO must identify the intended users of the features on the backlog.
  •  The PO is responsible for estimating the size of the total.
  •  The PO must identify the dependencies that impact the backlog.
  •  The PO decides what to include in the backlog and what to exclude.
Q53. Why should a team do refactoring?
  •  It assigns developers to other teams to eliminate personality conflicts.
  •  It improves the functionality of the product,
  •  It recalibrates the success criteria for the product in the marketplace.
  •  It improves the design, which can lead to improved development efficiency and maintainability.
Q54. Which choice is not a benefit generally associated with product demonstrations?
  •  Learn about new requirements.
  •  Learn feature suitability.
  •  Learn about feature usability.
  •  Learn about feature estimates.
Q55. What is an information radiator?
  •  a list of KPIs for the team
  •  a list of overdue action items
  •  the task board
  •  a highly visible display of key performance data
Q56. According to the Agile Manifesto, your highest priority is to ______.
  •  minimize change requests
  •  satisfy the customer
  •  get the job done on time
  •  achieve the desired ROI
Q57. Product development organizations sometimes use descriptions of archetypal users and their values so that developers can design the system to meet their needs and wants. What are these descriptions called?
  •  actors
  •  roles
  •  agents
  •  personas
Q58. The Product Owner is focused on testing a new system concept in the marketplace as quickly and inexpensively as possible. What is this first-generation product called?
  •  preproduction version
  •  focus group demonstrator
  •  Generation 1 product
  •  minimum viable product
Q59. To whom should the Product Owner report?
  •  the Quality Manager
  •  the Product Manager
  •  the Scrum Master
  •  the Engineering Manager
Q60. What happens in Splint 0?
  •  The team delivers no story points in that sprint.
  •  The team does regression testing before the production release.
  •  The team prepares to work on the product backlog.
  •  This is the time to inspect and adapt.
Q61. What does the Definition of Done mean?
  •  The story meets the INVEST criteria.
  •  The team has completed all of the work in its Sprint.
  •  The story has been handed off to the DevOps team.
  •  The team has agreed on the criteria for story completion.
Q62. Which element is most important when describing your product?
  •  its cost
  •  its licensing terms and conditions
  •  its benefits
  •  its features
Q63. Which choice best describes the Team Facilitator?
  •  a meeting scheduler
  •  a record keeper
  •  a project manager
  •  an Agile coach
Q64. What is the name of the technique that divides a story into smaller pieces?
  •  mitosis
  •  story slicing
  •  disaggregation
  •  Divide and Conquer
Q65. A team member comes to you with a complaint about another team member. What should you do?
  •  Bring the complaint to the other person and try to resolve the issue.
  •  Ask them to talk to the other person and try to work it.
  •  Notify HR of the problem and ask them to handle it.
  •  Invite both people to a meeting and try to mediate the conflict.
Q66. What is the forming-storming-norming, performing model of team development known as?
  •  the Tuckman model
  •  the Standard Team model
  •  Moore’s Team Framework
  •  the Siebert model
Q67. What is the name of the ceremony in which you inspect the work completed during the sprint?
  •  Sprint Retrospective
  •  Sprint Review //Answer?
  •  Next-Sprint Planning
  •  Velocity Confirmation
Q68. Which choice best describes an Agile Release Train (ART)?
  •  continuous delivery
  •  comprised of the teams within a program
  •  DevOps Center of Excellence
  •  Scrum of Scrums
Q69. As an Agile coach, what should be your attitude toward your team member’s individual goals and motivations?
  •  Understand them—try to align personal motivations with the team’s progress toward the project goals.
  •  Nurture them-goals are the reason why people want to be at work.
  •  Disregard them—personal views have no bearing on reaching the project goals.
  •  Leverage them—use personal goals to encourage team members to raise their performance levels.
Q70. Which phrase best describes an Agile team?
  •  self-directed
  •  self-managed
  •  self-sustaining
  •  self-organizing
Q71. Which technique does not help prioritize the backlog?
  •  Moscow
  •  Kano
  •  WSJF
  •  Kaizen
Q72. What does the Definition of Ready mean?
  •  The story has been tested end is ready for production release.
  •  The story is ready to be brought into a sprint. //Answer?
  •  The stakeholders are ready to discuss their requirements for a story.
  •  The team has completed sprint 0 and is ready to work.
Q73. Which is NOT a principle of the Scaled Agile Framework?
  •  Centralize decision-making
  •  Apply systems thinking
  •  Take an economic view
  •  Unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers
Q74. Which statement concerning small, frequent releases of software is true?
  •  The chance for rollback is high
  •  It typically requires a high degree of automation
  •  Backward compatibility may be jeopardized
  •  The administrative costs are high
Q75. What is the definition of capacity?
  •  It is an inventory of the team’s knowledge and skills that are used to plan the work that they do.
  •  It is the number of teams that a Team Facilitator can support concurrently.
  •  It is an adjustment to velocity, used in Spring Planning, to account for reduced availability of team members during the upcoming sprint.
  •  It is the maximum number of stories that will be allowed in a sprint.

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